THE DAILY PRACTICE
SQE1 Wills & Administration of Estates practice questions
One question. One rule to remember. Browse the published practice.
Wills and the administration of estates is assessed in FLK2. It covers making a valid will, interpreting and revoking it, intestacy, administering an estate (grants of representation, collecting assets, paying debts and distributing what is left), claims by family and dependants, and inheritance tax. Key sources include the Wills Act 1837, the Administration of Estates Act 1925, the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975 and the Inheritance Tax Act 1984. Every question below links to the source behind its answer.
Rules to remember
Shares in a company whose business is wholly or mainly dealing in land or securities or making or holding investments (such as property letting) are not relevant business property. Question L319
A PET becoming chargeable within seven years of death is taxed at the death rate, reduced by taper to 80%, 60%, 40% or 20% for gifts made 3-4, 4-5, 5-6 or 6-7 years before death. Question L318
On death, exempt gifts (e.g. to charity) are deducted, then the residence nil-rate band (home to direct descendants) and nil-rate band, with tax at 40% on the excess. Question L317
A beneficial joint tenant's interest passes by survivorship outside the will; a tenant in common's share passes under the will or intestacy. Question L316
PRs who advertise under s.27 Trustee Act 1925, allowing at least two months for claims, are not personally liable for claims of which they had no notice at distribution. Question L315
An executor who may wish to act later should have power reserved, with notice of the application given to them, rather than renounce, since a renunciation can be retracted only with leave. Question L314
Where a minor beneficiary or life interest arises, letters of administration must issue to at least two individuals or a trust corporation, unless the court allows a sole administrator. Question L313
Where no executor can prove, residuary legatees have priority under NCPR r.20(c) and take letters of administration with the will annexed. Question L312
A cohabitant needs two years' cohabitation immediately before death to claim under s.1(1)(ba), but may claim as a maintained dependant under s.1(1)(e), at the maintenance standard. Question L311
An Inheritance Act claim must be made within six months of the first grant of representation unless the court gives permission, although it may be made before a grant. Question L310
With no spouse, issue or parent, the estate passes on the statutory trusts for whole-blood siblings (including issue of a predeceased sibling) before half-blood siblings or grandparents. Question L309
Where an intestate leaves a spouse and issue, the spouse takes the chattels, the fixed net sum and half the balance; the issue take the other half on the statutory trusts. Question L308
A share of residue given to a named beneficiary as tenant in common lapses if they predecease the testator and, absent a s.33 exception, passes on partial intestacy. Question L307
Unless the will says otherwise, debts of a solvent estate fall first on undisposed property, then residue, then the fund for pecuniary legacies (which abate rateably), and only then on specific gifts. Question L306
A specific gift fails by ademption if its subject matter is not in the testator's estate at death, unless it has merely changed in name or form. Question L305
On divorce or annulment, unless the will shows a contrary intention, the former spouse is treated as having died on the date of dissolution for both appointments and gifts in the will. Question L304
Destruction revokes a will only if done by the testator, or by another person in the testator's presence and at their direction, with the intention to revoke. Question L303
An alteration made after execution has no effect unless executed like a will, except that original words which are no longer apparent are treated as removed. Question L302
Testamentary capacity is tested by Banks v Goodfellow: understanding the nature and effect of the will, the extent of the property and the claims of others, free from any disorder of mind distorting the dispositions. Question L301
A testator may sign alone and later acknowledge the signature to two witnesses present together; each witness must then sign in the testator's presence, but not necessarily in each other's. Question L300
A gift to an attesting witness or their spouse or civil partner is void, but the will remains valid. Question 08
On intestacy a spouse or civil partner who dies within 28 days of the intestate is treated as not having survived. Question 09
Marriage revokes a will under s.18(1) Wills Act 1837 unless the will shows it was made expecting marriage to a particular person and intending it not to be revoked, and that saving applies only on marriage to that person. Question 23
Unless the will shows a contrary intention, a gift to the testator's child or remoter descendant who dies first leaving issue passes to that beneficiary's issue living at the testator's death, in equal shares per stirpes. Question 37
Gift to a child who dies before the testator leaving issue (Wills Act 1837 s.33)
Which of the following best describes who is entitled to the £40,000 legacy?
Revocation of a will by marriage and the expectation of marriage exception (Wills Act 1837 s.18)
Which of the following best describes the status of the 2024 will?
Intestacy and the 28-day spousal survivorship rule
Which of the following best describes how Arjun's estate will be distributed?
Gifts to a witness's spouse under section 15 Wills Act 1837
Which of the following best describes the effect of Gareth having witnessed the will?
Acknowledging an earlier signature to two witnesses present together (Wills Act 1837 s.9)
Which of the following best describes whether the will was validly executed?
Testamentary capacity: Banks v Goodfellow, not the Mental Capacity Act 2005, as the test applied
Which of the following best describes the test the court will apply?
Unattested alteration to a will made after execution (Wills Act 1837 s.21)
Which of the following best describes Callum's entitlement?
Revocation by destruction must be by the testator or in their presence (Wills Act 1837 s.20)
Which of the following best describes the status of Rukhsana's will?
Effect of divorce on gifts to, and appointment of, a former spouse (Wills Act 1837 s.18A)
Which of the following best describes the effect of the divorce on Kwame's will?
Ademption of a specific gift of shares sold before death
Which of the following best describes Inés's entitlement?
Order of application of assets to debts and abatement of pecuniary legacies (AEA 1925 Sch.1 Pt II)
Which of the following best describes how the estate will be distributed?
Lapse of a share of residue given to named beneficiaries in equal shares
Which of the following best describes who is entitled to Thomas's residuary estate?
Calculating children's shares on intestacy with a surviving spouse (statutory legacy £322,000)
How much will each child be entitled to under the intestacy rules?
Intestacy with no spouse, issue or parent: whole-blood sibling's issue before half-blood sibling
Which of the following best describes who is entitled to Gethin's estate?
Time limit for an Inheritance Act 1975 claim: six months from the grant
Which of the following best describes the time limit position for Felicity's claim?
Cohabitant of less than two years: claiming under the 1975 Act as a person being maintained
Which of the following best describes Lorraine's position?
Priority for a grant where the sole executor predeceased (NCPR 1987 r.20)
Which of the following best describes who has priority to take a grant and what type of grant will issue?
Minority interest on intestacy: two administrators required (Senior Courts Act 1981 s.114(2))
Which of the following best describes the position on the grant?
Executor who may wish to act later: power reserved rather than renunciation (NCPR 1987 rr.27 and 37)
Which of the following is the most appropriate course?
Protecting personal representatives against unknown claims: s.27 Trustee Act 1925 notices
Which of the following best describes the step they can take to protect themselves before distributing?
Property passing outside the will: joint tenancy survivorship and tenancy in common
Which of the following best describes what passes to Ama under Kofi's will?
Inheritance tax on death: nil-rate band, residence nil-rate band and charity exemption
How much inheritance tax is payable on Seamus's death estate?
Failed potentially exempt transfer: tax with taper relief (IHTA 1984 s.7(4))
How much inheritance tax is payable on the gift to Femi as a result of Babatunde's death?
Business property relief unavailable for shares in an investment (property letting) company
Which of the following best describes the availability of business property relief (BPR) on the shares?
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