THE DAILY PRACTICE
Question archive
One question. One rule to remember. Browse the published practice.
Taking will instructions from a relative: acting only on the client's own instructions (SRA Code para 3.1)
Which of the following best describes how Laura should proceed under the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors?
Hybrid public authorities and private acts under the Human Rights Act 1998 s.6(3)(b) and (5)
Which of the following best describes the application of s.6 of the Human Rights Act 1998 to the company?
Which activities are reserved legal activities? Probate activities v will-writing (Legal Services Act 2007 s.12 and Sch 2)
Which of the following best identifies the service that is a reserved legal activity under the Legal Services Act 2007?
Recoverable damage under the Consumer Protection Act 1987: the product itself is excluded (s.5)
Which of the following best describes the damage Megan can recover under Part I of the Act?
Damages for negligent misrepresentation and the reverse burden of proof (Misrepresentation Act 1967 s.2(1))
Which of the following best describes Tom's position if he claims damages under the Misrepresentation Act 1967?
Summary judgment: no real prospect and no other compelling reason for a trial (CPR 24.3 and 24.4)
Which of the following best describes whether Brennan can obtain summary judgment?
Changing the nature of a partnership business needs every partner's consent (Partnership Act 1890 s.24(8))
Which of the following best describes the legal position on the proposed change?
Extending detention without charge from 24 to 36 hours (PACE 1984 ss.41 and 42)
Which of the following best describes how Hannah's detention without charge may be extended?
Burglary where the intent to steal is formed after entry (Theft Act 1968 s.9(1)(b))
Which of the following best describes Marcus's liability for burglary?
Statutory power of advancement: up to the whole presumptive share (Trustee Act 1925 s.32)
Which of the following best describes the trustees' power under section 32 of the Trustee Act 1925?
Legal leases of seven years or less as overriding interests (LRA 2002 Sch 3 para 1)
Which of the following best describes whether Callum is bound by Amara's lease?
Client account reconciliations every five weeks (SRA Accounts Rules, rule 8.3)
Which of the following best describes the firm's obligation?
Gift to a child who dies before the testator leaving issue (Wills Act 1837 s.33)
Which of the following best describes who is entitled to the £40,000 legacy?
Landlord's section 25 notice: timing, termination date and grounds of opposition (LTA 1954 s.25)
Which of the following best describes the requirements for Harbourside's section 25 notice?
Oral undertakings and the time for performance (SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, para 1.3)
Which of the following best describes Tomasz's position under the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors?
Passing a Bill without the consent of the House of Lords (Parliament Act 1911 s.2, as amended by the Parliament Act 1949)
Which of the following best describes when the Bill may be presented for Royal Assent without the consent of the House of Lords?
Using Hansard to interpret a statute: the conditions in Pepper v Hart [1993] AC 593
Which of the following best describes the extent to which the court may consider this Parliamentary material?
Occupiers' duty to trespassers and no recovery for property damage (Occupiers' Liability Act 1984 s.1(3), (4) and (8))
Which of the following best describes Brightwell Homes Ltd's potential liability to Marcus?
Excluding liability for negligence in a business contract (Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977 s.2)
Which of the following best describes the effect of clause 9 under the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977?
Claimant fails to beat a defendant's Part 36 offer: costs consequences (CPR 36.17(1)(a) and (3))
Which of the following best describes the order the court must make, unless it considers it unjust to do so?
Substantial property transactions with a director: members' approval (CA 2006 ss.190-191)
Which of the following best describes what the Companies Act 2006 requires before Kestrel Joinery Ltd buys the van?
Adverse inferences from silence and access to legal advice (CJPOA 1994 s.34(2A))
Which of the following best describes whether an adverse inference may be drawn under s.34 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994?
Oblique intention and the virtual certainty direction (R v Woollin)
Which of the following is the correct direction the judge should have given on intention?
Certainty of intention and precatory words
Which of the following best describes Joan's entitlement to the £60,000?
Overreaching on payment to two trustees and a beneficiary in actual occupation (LPA 1925 ss.2 and 27; City of London BS v Flegg)
Which of the following best describes Margaret's position against the bank?
Client account must not be used as a banking facility (SRA Accounts Rules, rule 3.3)
Which of the following best describes how the firm should respond?
Revocation of a will by marriage and the expectation of marriage exception (Wills Act 1837 s.18)
Which of the following best describes the status of the 2024 will?
Failure to complete and the notice to complete (SCS 5th ed, condition 6.8)
Which of the following best describes the effect of the notice to complete?
Acting against a former client whose confidential information you hold (SRA Code paras 6.3-6.5)
Which of the following best describes whether Ashby Cole LLP may act for Petra?
Effect of a declaration of incompatibility (HRA 1998 ss.3-4)
Which of the following best describes the effect of the declaration?
Court of Appeal and its own previous decisions (Young v Bristol Aeroplane)
Which of the following best describes whether the Court of Appeal may decline to follow its 2019 decision?
Secondary victims after Paul v Royal Wolverhampton NHS Trust
Which of the following best describes whether Mei can recover damages as a secondary victim?
Part payment of a debt (Foakes v Beer)
Which of the following best describes whether Gareth can recover the £3,000?
Default judgment after an acknowledgment of service (CPR 10.3, 15.4, 12.3)
Which of the following best describes the position?
Declaring an interest in a proposed transaction (CA 2006 s.177)
Which of the following best describes Priya's duty under the Companies Act 2006?
Delaying access to legal advice at the police station (PACE s.58)
Which of the following best describes whether the delay is lawful?
The test for dishonesty after Ivey v Genting and R v Barton
Which of the following best describes how the court will decide whether Leon acted dishonestly?
The rule in Saunders v Vautier: ending a trust early
Which of the following best describes Sofia's position?
Freehold covenants: the burden of a positive covenant does not run
Which of the following best describes whether Ben can enforce the covenant against Carl?
Transferring client money for costs: bill first (SRA Accounts Rules 4.3)
Which of the following best describes what the firm must do before transferring the money?
Intestacy and the 28-day spousal survivorship rule
Which of the following best describes how Arjun's estate will be distributed?
Gifts to a witness's spouse under section 15 Wills Act 1837
Which of the following best describes the effect of Gareth having witnessed the will?
Priority period of an official search of registered land (OS1)
Which of the following best describes the protection the official search gives the buyer?
Acting for clients competing for the same objective (SRA Code 6.2)
Which of the following best describes whether the firm may act for both clients?
Judicial review time limits: promptly and within three months
Which of the following best describes the time limit for Bilal's claim for judicial review?
Pre-incorporation contracts: personal liability of the person acting (CA 2006 s.51)
Who is liable to the supplier under the order?
Written special resolution: 75% of total voting rights of eligible members (CA 2006 ss.21, 283)
What is the status of the written resolution?
Directors authorising a director's conflict of interest in a private company (CA 2006 s.175)
Has Nadia's conflict of interest been effectively authorised?
Director's service contract over two years without members' approval (CA 2006 ss.188-189)
What is the effect of the failure to obtain the members' approval?
Ratifying a director's negligence: votes of the director and connected persons (CA 2006 s.239)
Is the ratification resolution passed?
Members requiring directors to call a general meeting: timing (CA 2006 ss.303-304)
What must the directors do once the company has received Yusuf's request?
Excluded minority in a quasi-partnership company: unfair prejudice petition (CA 2006 ss.994, 996)
Which course of action is most appropriate for Abena?
Allotting shares for cash in a single-class private company: s.550 authority and s.569 pre-emption
Which shareholder resolution(s), if any, are needed before the directors can make the allotment to Lucía?
Off-market buyback by written resolution: majority and seller's eligibility (CA 2006 ss.694-695)
Which statement correctly describes the members' approval needed?
Unlawful dividend: which shareholders must repay (CA 2006 ss.830, 847)
Which shareholder, if any, is liable under the Companies Act 2006 to repay the dividend received?
Failure to register a company charge within 21 days (CA 2006 ss.859A, 859H)
What is the bank's position in the liquidation?
Order of payment from floating charge realisations in a liquidation (IA 1986 ss.175, 176A)
In what order will the liquidator apply the floating charge realisations?
Partner's authority to bind the firm despite an internal spending limit (Partnership Act 1890 s.5)
Is the firm bound by the contract with Prism Supplies Ltd?
Retired partner's liability to an existing customer without notice (Partnership Act 1890 s.36)
Can Delmont Timber Ltd hold Rowena liable for the June debt?
LLP carrying on business with one member for more than six months (LLPA 2000 s.4A)
What is Joaquín's personal liability for these debts?
Repaying a director's loan before liquidation: preference to a connected person (IA 1986 ss.239-240)
Can the liquidator challenge the repayment to Felix?
Floating charge granted to secure an existing overdraft before liquidation (IA 1986 s.245)
What is the status of the floating charge in the liquidation?
Wrongful trading: the 'every step' defence (IA 1986 s.214)
Which of the following, if established, would give Gaia a defence?
Creditors' bankruptcy petition: aggregating debts to reach the bankruptcy level (IA 1986 ss.267-268)
Can a bankruptcy petition be presented against Dariusz?
Sole trader's loss in the first year of trading: early trade losses relief (ITA 2007 ss.72-73)
Which relief allows the loss to be set against her 2023/24 employment income, and how does it operate?
Company trading loss: current-year and 12-month carry-back relief (CTA 2010 s.37)
How will the £80,000 loss be relieved?
Income tax on dividends for a director-shareholder in 2026/27 (ITA 2007 ss.8, 13A)
How much income tax is payable on Anjali's dividends?
Business Asset Disposal Relief: officer or employee condition not met for two years (CGT)
How much capital gains tax is payable on the disposal?
Gift of unquoted trading company shares: hold-over relief and donee's base cost (TCGA 1992 s.165)
What is the capital gains tax effect of the gift and the claim?
Inheritance tax business property relief: two-year minimum ownership
Is business property relief available on the shares in Leopold's estate?
VAT registration threshold: zero-rated supplies count, exempt supplies do not
Is Sunniva required to register for VAT?
Goods on display in a self-service shop: invitation to treat (Boots)
Which of the following best describes the legal position?
Acceptance by post and an offeror who sells elsewhere before the letter arrives
Which of the following best describes the legal position?
Extra pay for performing an existing contractual duty: practical benefit (Williams v Roffey)
Which of the following best describes whether Kofi can recover the £6,000?
Intention to create legal relations between spouses who have separated (Merritt v Merritt)
Which of the following best describes whether the agreement is legally binding?
Goods delivered with no agreed price: reasonable price (Sale of Goods Act 1979 s.8)
Which of the following best describes Oakmere's liability under the Sale of Goods Act 1979?
A minor's liability for necessaries (Sale of Goods Act 1979 s.3)
Which of the following best describes Callum's liability?
Third party enforcing a term that benefits them (Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 s.1)
Which of the following best describes whether Leon can enforce the fence-painting term against Ridgeway?
Varying a contract after the third party has communicated assent (C(RTP)A 1999 s.2)
Which of the following best describes the effect of the agreement to transfer the booking?
Exclusion notice displayed after the contract is made at an automatic car park barrier (Thornton)
Leaving aside any statutory controls on exclusion clauses, which of the following best describes whether the exclusion clause is part of the contract?
Implying a term in fact: necessity or obviousness, not fairness (M&S v BNP Paribas)
Which of the following best describes the approach a court will take to Pennant's argument?
Interpreting a clear price escalation clause that became a bad bargain (Arnold v Britton)
Which of the following best describes how a court is likely to interpret clause 5?
Slight breach of an implied condition in a business sale (Sale of Goods Act 1979 s.15A)
Which of the following best describes Larkspur's position?
Excluding liability for satisfactory quality in a consumer sale (Consumer Rights Act 2015 s.31)
Which of the following best describes the effect of the clause?
Oral variation of a contract containing a 'No Oral Modification' clause (Rock Advertising)
Which of the following best describes the effect of the telephone agreement?
Court's discretion to award damages in lieu of rescission (Misrepresentation Act 1967 s.2(2))
Which of the following best describes the court's powers in Harrowby's claim?
Sale of specific goods that had already perished (Sale of Goods Act 1979 s.6)
Which of the following best describes the legal position?
Economic duress: the requirement of no reasonable alternative (PIA v Times Travel)
Which of the following best describes whether Corbett is likely to succeed?
Undue influence and a joint loan to spouses: when the lender is put on inquiry (CIBC v Pitt)
Which of the following best describes the position between Aisha and the bank?
Recovering money paid for an unlawful purpose (Patel v Mirza)
Which of the following best describes whether Ollie can recover the £25,000?
Sums paid and payable before frustration, and expenses (LR(FC)A 1943 s.1(2))
Which of the following best describes the position under the Law Reform (Frustrated Contracts) Act 1943?
Remoteness: losses from special circumstances not communicated (Hadley v Baxendale)
Which of the following best describes the damages Wren Valley can recover from Swiftline?
Liquidated damages or penalty: the legitimate interest test (Cavendish v Makdessi)
Which of the following best describes whether clause 9 is enforceable?
Specific performance of a covenant to keep a business open (Co-operative Insurance v Argyll)
Which of the following best describes how the court is likely to respond?
Oral guarantee of another's debt (Statute of Frauds 1677 s.4)
Which of the following best describes whether Kestrel can enforce Ahmed's promise against him?
Lump sum contract substantially performed with minor defects (Hoenig v Isaacs)
Ignoring any rights under the Consumer Rights Act 2015, which of the following best describes Owen's liability at common law?
Liability for failing to act after creating a dangerous situation (R v Miller duty)
Which of the following best describes whether Tomasz can be criminally liable for the damage caused by the fire?
Subjective recklessness in criminal damage (R v G)
Which of the following best describes whether Priya was reckless as to the damage to the warehouse?
Transferred malice where the blow strikes an unintended victim
Which of the following best describes Ryan's liability for Leah's death?
Mens rea for assault occasioning actual bodily harm (s.47 OAPA 1861; R v Savage)
Which of the following best describes Hannah's liability under s.47?
Mens rea of 'maliciously' inflicting grievous bodily harm (s.20 OAPA 1861; R v Mowatt)
Which of the following best states the mens rea the prosecution must prove under s.20?
Wounding with intent to resist lawful arrest (s.18 OAPA 1861)
Which of the following best describes Jordan's liability under s.18?
Consent to actual bodily harm for sexual gratification (Domestic Abuse Act 2021, s.71)
Which of the following best describes whether Sam's consent prevents Elliot being guilty of the s.47 offence?
Murder: an intention to cause grievous bodily harm is sufficient mens rea
Which of the following best describes Kofi's liability?
Death over three years after the injury: Attorney General's consent (Year and a Day Rule Act 1996)
Which of the following best describes the position on bringing a murder prosecution against Bethany?
Loss of control: considered desire for revenge (Coroners and Justice Act 2009, s.54(4))
Which of the following best describes whether the partial defence of loss of control is available to Nadia?
Diminished responsibility: elements, burden and effect (Homicide Act 1957, s.2)
Which of the following best describes how the defence of diminished responsibility operates in Oliver's case?
Unlawful act manslaughter: the objective dangerousness test (R v Church)
Which of the following best describes Leon's liability for unlawful act manslaughter?
Gross negligence manslaughter: the risk must be of death, not serious injury (R v Rose)
Which of the following best describes whether the judge's direction was correct?
Theft of money received by mistake (Theft Act 1968, s.5(4))
Which of the following best describes whether the property 'belonged to another' for the purposes of theft?
Borrowing that is equivalent to an outright taking (Theft Act 1968, s.6(1))
Which of the following best describes whether Rhys intended permanently to deprive his housemate of the ticket?
Robbery: force must be used in order to steal (Theft Act 1968, s.8)
Which of the following best describes Dean's liability for robbery?
Burglary by entering part of a building as a trespasser (Theft Act 1968, s.9(1)(a))
Which of the following best describes Ethan's liability for burglary?
Aggravated burglary: when is an article a 'weapon of offence'? (Theft Act 1968, s.10)
Which of the following best describes Gemma's liability for aggravated burglary?
Fraud by false representation is complete without any deception or gain (Fraud Act 2006, s.2)
Which of the following best describes Kemal's liability?
Lawful excuse based on an honest belief in the owner's consent (Criminal Damage Act 1971, s.5)
Which of the following best describes whether Ben has a defence?
Aggravated arson of the defendant's own property (Criminal Damage Act 1971, s.1(2) and (3))
Which of the following best describes Victor's liability under s.1(2) and (3) of the Criminal Damage Act 1971?
Self-defence in a householder case: grossly disproportionate force (CJIA 2008, s.76(5A))
Which of the following best describes how the jury should approach the degree of force Rahul used?
Voluntary intoxication: specific and basic intent (DPP v Majewski)
Which of the following best describes the relevance of Tyrone's intoxication?
Attempt where the full offence is impossible (Criminal Attempts Act 1981, s.1(2) and (3))
Which of the following best describes Simon's liability for attempted theft?
Accessory liability after R v Jogee: foresight is evidence of intent, not a substitute for it
Which of the following correctly states what the prosecution must prove for Marcus to be guilty of murder?
Timing of the first review of detention before charge (PACE 1984 s.40)
By what time must the first review of Priya's detention be carried out, and by whom?
Delaying the right to have someone informed of arrest (PACE 1984 s.56)
Which of the following best describes whether telling Tomasz's partner may be delayed?
Who may act as appropriate adult for a juvenile (PACE Code C para 1.7 and Notes 1B, 1F)
Which of the following persons may properly act as Kofi's appropriate adult?
Defence solicitor's role in interview and when they may be excluded (Code C 6.9-6.10, Note 6D)
Which of the following best describes Grace's position?
When an identification procedure must be held and which procedure comes first (Code D 3.12, 3.14)
What should the police do next?
Inferences from failure to account for a substance: the special warning (CJPOA 1994 s.36)
Which of the following best describes whether an inference may be drawn under s.36 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994?
Inferences from a defendant's failure to give evidence at trial (CJPOA 1994 ss.35 and 38(3))
Which of the following best describes the position?
Refusing bail where the offence was allegedly committed on bail (Bail Act 1976 Sch 1 para 2A)
Which of the following best describes the court's power in relation to bail?
Prosecution appeal against a grant of bail by magistrates (Bail (Amendment) Act 1993 s.1)
Which of the following correctly describes the procedure for a prosecution appeal against the grant of bail?
Effect of indicating a guilty plea at plea before venue (MCA 1980 s.17A)
What is the effect of Amira's indication?
Binding effect of a non-custodial indication of sentence (MCA 1980 ss.20 and 20A)
Which of the following best describes the court's position?
Sending an adult co-defendant jointly charged with a related either-way offence (CDA 1998 s.51(5))
How should the court deal with Lewis?
The prosecution's initial duty of disclosure of unused material (CPIA 1996 s.3)
What must the prosecutor do with the passer-by's statement?
Defence statements in the magistrates' court: voluntary but not risk-free (CPIA 1996 ss.6 and 11)
What is the best advice to Natalia?
The legal burden and standard of proof where the defendant claims accident (Woolmington v DPP)
How should the judge direct the jury on the burden and standard of proof?
Withdrawing poor, unsupported identification evidence from the jury (Turnbull)
What should the judge do?
Submission of no case to answer where the issue is a witness's reliability (R v Galbraith)
How should the judge approach the submission?
Excluding a confession obtained by an inducement: unreliability under PACE 1984 s.76(2)(b)
Which of the following best describes how the court must deal with the confession?
Discretion to exclude identification evidence obtained after a Code D breach (PACE 1984 s.78)
Which of the following best describes the court's power?
Admitting the statement of a witness too frightened to testify (CJA 2003 ss.114 and 116(2)(e))
Which of the following best describes whether Megan's statement can be admitted?
Adducing a complainant's previous convictions: non-defendant bad character (CJA 2003 s.100)
Which of the following best describes whether the convictions can be put to Darren?
Attack on another's character and the power to exclude (CJA 2003 s.101(1)(g) and (3))
Which of the following best describes the position?
Calculating guilty plea credit after a plea at the PTPH and a lost Newton hearing
Applying the Sentencing Council's guilty plea guideline, what sentence should the judge impose?
Crown Court's sentencing powers on an appeal against conviction from magistrates (SCA 1981 s.48)
Which of the following best describes the Crown Court's power over Ewan's sentence?
Compulsory referral order for a first-time youth offender pleading guilty (SA 2020 ss.84-85)
What sentence must the court impose?
Staying court proceedings brought in breach of an arbitration agreement (Arbitration Act 1996, s 9)
What is the best advice to give Harlow?
Court's power to order ADR and costs consequences of refusing to engage (CPR 3.1(2)(o), 44.2(5)(e))
Which of the following best describes the position?
Sanctions against a defendant who ignores a letter before claim (PD Pre-Action Conduct, para 16)
Which of the following orders may the court make because of Brightwater's non-compliance?
Limitation period for a claim in simple contract (Limitation Act 1980, s 5)
What limitation period applies to Tamsin's claim?
Personal injury limitation for a claimant injured as a child (Limitation Act 1980, ss 11 and 28(6))
Ignoring the court's discretion to disapply the time limit, by when must proceedings for Leo's personal injury claim be issued?
Applicable law where both parties live in England but the accident is abroad (Rome II, art 4(2))
Which law will the English court apply to Priya's claim in tort?
Where to start a money claim: High Court or County Court (PD 7A, para 2.1)
In which court should the claim be started?
Normal track for a £72,000 contract claim with a two-day trial (CPR 26.9)
To which track is this claim normally allocated?
Deemed service of an application notice sent by email after 4.30 pm (CPR 6.26)
On what date are the documents deemed to be served?
Failing to apply in time to dispute jurisdiction after acknowledging service (CPR 11(4)-(5))
Which of the following best describes Meridian's position under CPR Part 11?
Default judgment entered after a late defence had been filed must be set aside (CPR 12.3(2), 13.2)
How should the court deal with Thistle's application?
Costs consequences of discontinuing a claim (CPR 38.6)
What is Selby's liability for costs, unless the court orders otherwise?
Defence that fails to deal with an allegation (CPR 16.5)
How will the allegation in paragraph (2), about delivery on 4 March 2026, be treated?
Amending particulars of claim after service (CPR 17.1(2))
Which of the following best describes how Bramwell may amend its particulars of claim?
Approach to an interim prohibitory injunction (American Cyanamid principles)
Which of the following best describes the approach the court should take to Nova's application?
Conditions for and limit on an interim payment order (CPR 25.20 and 25.23)
Which of the following best describes the court's power to order an interim payment?
Failure to file a costs budget on time (CPR 3.13 and 3.14)
Unless the court otherwise orders, what is the consequence for Dunmore?
Conditions for pre-action disclosure (CPR 31.16)
Which of the following must the court be satisfied of before it can order pre-action disclosure?
Litigation privilege: contemplated litigation and dominant purpose (SFO v ENRC; Three Rivers (No 6))
Which of the following best describes whether the reports are protected by litigation privilege?
Failure to comply with hearsay notice requirements (Civil Evidence Act 1995, s 2(4); CPR 33.2)
Which of the following best describes the position?
Putting written questions to the other side's expert (CPR 35.6)
Which of the following correctly states the rule on Ferris's written questions to Quayle's surveyor?
When a witness summons is binding (CPR 34.5 and 34.7)
As a general rule, what must happen for the witness summons to bind Mr Wojcik?
How to address a circuit judge in court
How should Nadia address the judge in court?
Claimant beats its own Part 36 offer at trial: calculating the additional amount (CPR 36.17(4)(d))
What additional amount must the court award the claimant under Part 36?
Appeal from a circuit judge in the County Court: destination and permission (CPR 52.3, 52.6; PD 52A)
Which of the following correctly states to which court the appeal lies and whether permission is required?
Taking control of goods under a County Court judgment of £5,000 or more (HCCCJO 1991, art 8)
In which court may Gwen enforce the judgment by taking control of Hartley's goods?
Joint clients forming a company who then disagree on a shareholders' agreement term (Code 6.2)
Which of the following best describes the firm's position under the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs, RFLs and RSLs?
Client instructs solicitor to withhold and delete a damaging disclosable document (Code 1.4 and 2.1)
What should Hannah do?
Right-to-reply letter threatening a journalist with remedies unavailable in a civil claim (SLAPPs)
Which of the following best describes how the firm should respond to these instructions?
Sharing fees with an accountant who introduces company clients (Code 5.1)
Which of the following best describes what the Code requires in relation to this arrangement?
Updating a litigation client when the costs estimate will be substantially exceeded (Code 8.7)
Which of the following best describes the fee earner's obligation?
Undertaking to pay an expert's fee when the client has not put the firm in funds (Code 1.3)
Which of the following best describes Gareth's position under the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors?
PI client's complaint unresolved after eight weeks: Legal Ombudsman information (Code 8.4)
What must the firm now do?
Duty to cite an adverse Court of Appeal decision the opponent has missed (Code 2.7)
Which of the following best describes what Daniel must do?
Supervising partner's accountability for an unsupervised paralegal's work (Code 3.5)
Which of the following best describes Sarah's position under the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors?
Settlement NDA that would stop a claimant reporting an assault to the police (NDA warning notice)
Which of the following best describes whether the firm may include the clause?
Letter to unrepresented debtor discouraging legal advice and imposing a 24-hour deadline (Code 1.2)
Which of the following best describes the firm's position?
COLP's duty to report suspected alteration of a signed witness statement (Code for Firms 9.1)
What does the SRA Code of Conduct for Firms require of Amina?
Client wants to leave a significant gift to the solicitor drafting the will (Code 6.1)
How should Clara proceed?
Solicitor drafting a parent's will that leaves residue equally to the solicitor and siblings
Which of the following best describes whether Jonah may draft the will without his mother first taking independent legal advice?
Deceased client's son asks for her will and instructions before probate (Code 6.3)
What should the solicitor do?
Joint owners selling: one co-owner's instruction to pay all the proceeds to her (Code 3.1 and 6.2)
Which of the following best describes how the firm should proceed?
Selling a house on the instructions of the owner's attorney under a registered LPA (Code 3.1)
Which of the following best describes whether the firm may act on the sale?
Firm's own error in a trust matter: openness and own interest conflict (Code 6.1, 7.11)
Which of the following best describes what the firm should do?
Commission received from an insurer on a policy arranged for an executor client (Code 4.1)
What must the firm do with the £150 commission?
Acting for seller and buyer of a flat where terms are still to be negotiated (Code 6.2)
Which of the following best describes whether the firm may act for both?
Acting for buyer and lender when the buyer hides a cash-back from the lender (Code 1.4, 6.2)
Which of the following best describes the solicitor's position?
Defending a client who has privately admitted guilt but wants to plead not guilty
Which of the following best describes how the solicitor may proceed?
Sentencing where the prosecution wrongly states the client has no previous convictions
Which of the following best describes the solicitor's position?
Co-defendants whose accounts conflict: acting for both (Code 6.2 and 6.5)
Which of the following best describes the firm's position?
Privileged advice mistakenly sent by seller's solicitor: must the buyer be told? (Code 6.4(d))
Under paragraph 6.4 of the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, is Zainab obliged to tell her client what the letter says?
Paying an agency for referrals of defendants awaiting trial (Code 5.1(d))
May the firm enter into this arrangement?
Oral short lease at a market rent creates a legal lease (LPA 1925 s.54(2))
Which of the following best describes the interest Kwame holds?
Contract for the sale of land must be signed by both parties (LP(MP)A 1989 s.2)
Which of the following best describes the legal position?
Chattel or part of the land: degree and object of annexation (Elitestone v Morris)
Which of the following best describes whether the cabin passes to Laila on completion?
First registration: gift of unregistered land not registered within two months (LRA 2002 ss.4, 6, 7)
Which of the following best describes the position?
Express easement over registered land operates at law only when registered (LRA 2002 s.27)
Which of the following best describes the status of Tom's right of way at present?
Protecting a beneficial interest under a trust of land: restriction, not notice (LRA 2002 s.33)
Which entry should Femi seek on the register of Ana's title?
Actual occupation: occupier who fails to disclose her interest on inquiry (LRA 2002 Sch 3 para 2(b))
Which of the following best describes Rosa's position against Imran?
Legal easement exercised within the year before a disposition overrides (LRA 2002 Sch 3 para 3)
Which of the following best describes whether Nadia is bound by the drainage easement?
Rectification against a registered proprietor in possession (LRA 2002 Sch 4)
Which of the following best describes how the application will be dealt with?
Unregistered land: unregistered estate contract void despite notice (LCA 1972 s.4(6))
Which of the following best describes whether Grace can enforce her option against Ellis?
Severance by written notice, then survivorship (LPA 1925 ss.36(2), 196(3))
Which of the following best describes who now holds the legal title and the beneficial interests in the house?
Order for sale between co-owners: TOLATA 1996 ss.14 and 15 factors
Which of the following best describes how the court will decide Joel's application?
Trustee in bankruptcy's application for sale of the family home after one year (IA 1986 s.335A)
Which of the following best describes how the court will approach the application?
Lease or licence: exclusive possession for a term at a rent (Street v Mountford)
Which of the following best describes Siobhan's legal position?
Certainty of term: letting 'until the land is needed' to a company (Berrisford v Mexfield)
Which of the following best describes the legal effect of the agreement?
Post-1995 lease: original tenant released on assignment (LT(C)A 1995 s.5)
Which of the following best describes Bea's liability?
Forfeiture for breach of a covenant other than rent: section 146 notice first (LPA 1925 s.146)
What must Fairway do before it can enforce the right of re-entry?
Easements: the right must accommodate the dominant land (Re Ellenborough Park)
Which of the following proposed rights is LEAST likely to be capable of existing as an easement?
Section 62 LPA 1925: a tenant's permissive right becomes an easement on sale of the freehold
Which of the following best describes Lena's position?
Implied easement under the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows on a sale of part
Which of the following best describes whether Gus has a right to use the driveway?
Burden of a restrictive freehold covenant runs in equity (Tulk v Moxhay)
Which of the following best describes whether Ruth can enforce the covenant against Brightside?
Purchaser from a mortgagee protected despite irregular exercise of power of sale (LPA s.104(2))
Which of the following best describes the position?
Mortgagee's duty on sale: timing is for the mortgagee; true market value at sale (Silven)
Which of the following best describes Fenwick's liability to Tanaka?
Court's power to adjourn or suspend mortgage possession of a dwelling-house (AJA 1970 s.36)
Which of the following best describes the court's powers at the possession hearing?
Priority of registered charges: the order shown on the register (LRA 2002 s.48)
Which of the following best describes the priority of the two charges?
Conflict between SRA Principles: the wider public interest prevails over the client's interests
Which of the following best states how Ifeoma must resolve the tension between the SRA Principles in this situation?
Reserved instrument activities: Land Registry transfer v wills and powers of attorney (LSA Sch 2)
Which document can Gareth's business NOT lawfully prepare for a fee, because preparing it is a reserved legal activity?
Admitting a non-lawyer member to a law firm LLP makes it a licensable body (LSA 2007 s.72)
What is the regulatory consequence of admitting Priya as a member of the LLP?
Closing a firm with no successor: six years' run-off cover under the SRA Minimum Terms
Which of the following best describes the indemnity insurance position for Martina's claim?
SRA Transparency Rules: which advertised service requires published cost information?
For which advertised service must the firm publish cost information on its website under the SRA Transparency Rules?
Equality Act 2010: no charging a disabled client for a reasonable adjustment (s.20(7))
What is the correct position on the interpreter's fees?
Savings built up from tax evasion are criminal property (POCA 2002 s.340)
Which of the following best describes the status of the savings under Part 7 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002?
Conducting and settling litigation is not a s.328 POCA arrangement (Bowman v Fels)
Which of the following best describes Mehmet's position under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002?
Failure to disclose (POCA s.330): no privilege for information given to further a crime
What is Joanna's obligation under s.330 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002?
Tipping off: telling a client of a report to dissuade an offence (POCA ss.333A and 333D(2))
Has Grace committed the offence of tipping off under s.333A of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002?
Deemed consent after a DAML: the seven working day notice period (POCA s.335)
Assuming the NCA does not give notice refusing consent, from which date may the firm first treat itself as having the appropriate consent to complete?
Domestic politically exposed persons: enhanced due diligence still required (MLR 2017 reg 35)
Under the Money Laundering Regulations 2017, what must the firm do in addition to its standard customer due diligence before establishing the business relationship?
Beneficial owners of a company client: individuals holding more than 25% (MLR 2017 reg 5)
Which individual or individuals are beneficial owners of the company under the Money Laundering Regulations 2017?
Breach of the general prohibition: agreement unenforceable against the client (FSMA s.26)
Which of the following best describes the civil consequences of the agreement with Elena?
Recognising a specified investment: company shares v land and goods (RAO art 76)
Which asset is a specified investment for the purposes of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000?
Introducing a client to an independent financial adviser: the introducing exclusion (RAO art 33)
Which of the following best describes whether Rupert's introduction is a regulated activity?
Commission and the Part 20 exemption: accounting to the client (FSMA 2000 s.327(3))
What must the firm do with the commission if it is to continue to rely on the exemption for professional firms?
SRA Financial Services (Scope) Rules: acting as nominated adviser on an AIM admission is prohibited
Which role is Kingsley Ruiz LLP prohibited from taking by the SRA Financial Services (Scope) Rules?
Personal injury CFA: success fee capped at 25% of damages excluding future loss (2013 Order)
What is the maximum success fee the firm may charge Nadia?
CFA success fees are not recoverable from the losing opponent (CLSA 1990 s.58A(6))
Which of the following is the correct answer to Callum's question?
Damages-based agreements in employment claims: the 35% cap including VAT (DBA Regs reg 7)
What is the maximum payment the firm may receive from Aisha under the damages-based agreement?
Civil legal aid scope: possession of the client's home v excluded services (LASPO Sch 1)
Whose matter is within the scope of civil legal aid under Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012?
Legal expenses insurance: checking for before-the-event cover at the outset (Sarwar v Alam)
Which step best reflects proper practice for the solicitor when considering funding at the outset?
Acting for both seller and buyer of a residential property (SRA Code of Conduct, para 6.2)
Which of the following best describes whether Nkechi may act for Sunita as well as Martin?
Form A restriction and a sale by a surviving co-owner (registered title)
What should Callum's solicitor require in order to obtain good title and register the transfer?
Length of title an unregistered seller must deduce (LPA 1969, s.23)
Which of the following best describes the title Grace must deduce?
Planning enforcement time limit for unauthorised building works in England (TCPA 1990, s.171B)
Which of the following best describes the position on planning enforcement?
Change of use within Use Class E is not development (TCPA 1990, s.55(2)(f))
Does Marek need planning permission for the change from clothes shop to café?
Using the buyer's deposit on the seller's related purchase (SCS 5th ed, condition 2.2.5)
Which of the following best describes the position under the Standard Conditions of Sale?
Risk of damage between exchange and completion (SCS 5th ed, condition 5.1.1)
Which of the following best describes Tomasz's position?
Calculating contractual compensation for late completion (SCS 5th ed, condition 7.2)
How much compensation, if any, is payable under condition 7.2, and by whom?
Execution of a transfer deed by a company with a sole director (Companies Act 2006, s.44)
How may the transfer be validly executed by the company?
Failure to apply for first registration within two months (LRA 2002, ss.6 and 7)
Which of the following best describes the current position?
SDLT on a residential purchase above the first-time buyers' relief limit
How much SDLT is payable?
Deadline for the SDLT return and payment after completion (FA 2003, ss.76 and 86)
What must be done about SDLT, and by when?
Land Transaction Tax return for a purchase in Wales (LTTA 2017, s.44)
Which of the following best describes what must be done after completion to deal with tax on the purchase?
Landlord's statutory duties on an application for consent to assign (LTA 1988, ss.1 and 4)
Which of the following best describes Bluewater's position?
Pre-agreed AGA condition in a post-1995 commercial lease (LTA 1927, s.19(1A))
Which of the following best describes whether Fenwick may impose the AGA condition?
Cap on damages for breach of a tenant's repairing covenant (LTA 1927, s.18(1))
What is the maximum the landlord can recover as damages for breach of the repairing covenant?
Contracting out of LTA 1954 security of tenure when the warning notice is served late (s.38A)
What must happen for the contracting-out agreement to be valid?
Landlord's response to a tenant's section 26 request (LTA 1954, s.26)
What must Ashgrove do to preserve its right to oppose a new tenancy?
Statutory compensation when renewal is refused on ground (f) only (LTA 1954, s.37)
What compensation, if any, is Nadia entitled to on quitting the holding?
VAT on the sale of an opted commercial building under the SCPC (condition 2)
Which of the following best describes the VAT position under the contract?
Private residence relief on a former home later let (TCGA 1992, s.223)
What is Kemi's chargeable gain on the sale, before the annual exempt amount?
Interest on estate money held in client account during an administration (rule 7)
Which of the following best describes the firm's obligation regarding interest?
Paying out more than is held for an estate client and replacing the shortfall (rules 5.3 and 6.1)
Which of the following best describes what the firm must now do?
Residual balance of £500 or less after an estate is distributed: payment to charity
Which of the following best describes what the firm may do with the £120?
Estate money in a joint account with a lay executor: which Accounts Rules apply (rules 9 and 12)
Which of the following best describes the firm's obligations in relation to the joint account?
Deposit received as stakeholder on exchange is client money (rule 2.1(b))
Which of the following best describes how the firm must treat the deposit?
Mixed payment from a buyer client covering completion money and a delivered bill (rule 4.2)
Which of the following best describes how the firm should deal with the £61,200?
Accountant's report exemption: both the average and maximum balance limits must be met (rule 12.2)
Which of the following best describes the firm's obligation for that accounting period?
Status of Privy Council decisions in the courts of England and Wales (Willers v Joyce)
Which of the following best describes how the High Court judge should proceed?
When an Act with no commencement provision comes into force (Interpretation Act 1978 s.4)
When did section 5 come into force?
Using explanatory notes and Law Commission reports as aids to interpretation (R (O) v SSHD)
Which of the following best describes the use the court may make of these documents?
Purposive interpretation and developments Parliament did not foresee (Quintavalle)
Which of the following best describes how the court is likely to approach the interpretation of section 1?
Presumption of mens rea where a statutory offence is silent (B v DPP)
Which of the following best describes the mental element the court is likely to require as to Danny's age?
Bilingual Acts of Senedd Cymru: equal status of the Welsh and English texts
Which of the following best describes the status of the two texts?
Senedd Cymru legislative competence: provisions applying in relation to England (GoWA 2006 s.108A)
Which of the following best describes the legal position?
Rights of audience: a litigant in person and a lay friend (Legal Services Act 2007)
Which of the following best describes the rights of audience at the trial?
Ministers and judicial independence (Constitutional Reform Act 2005 s.3)
Which of the following best describes the minister's proposed conduct?
Constitutional statutes and implied repeal (Thoburn v Sunderland City Council)
Which of the following best describes how the court is likely to approach the implied repeal argument, applying Thoburn v Sunderland City Council?
Prerogative power and statute covering the same ground (De Keyser principle, Miller)
Which of the following best describes the lawfulness of relying on the prerogative?
Legal status of the Sewel convention for Wales (GoWA 2006 s.107(6) and Miller)
Which of the following best describes the legal position?
Parliamentary privilege and prosecution of MPs for false expenses claims (R v Chaytor)
Which of the following best describes whether the prosecution may proceed?
Advance notice of a public procession (Public Order Act 1986 s.11)
Which of the following best describes the notice requirement?
Breach of the peace: definition and the power to prevent an imminent breach
Which of the following best describes the legal position?
Refusing JR relief where the outcome would not be substantially different (SCA 1981 s.31(2A))
Which of the following best describes the court's position on relief?
Substantive legitimate expectation and whether detrimental reliance is required (Re Finucane)
Which of the following best describes the traders' prospects of establishing a legitimate expectation claim?
Who may bring a Human Rights Act claim, and when (HRA 1998 s.7)
Which of the following best describes the position?
Effect of Strasbourg case law in domestic courts (HRA 1998 s.2)
Which of the following best describes the duty of the High Court in relation to the Strasbourg judgment?
Conflict between assimilated EU legislation and an Act of Parliament after 2023 (EUWA 2018 s.5)
Which of the following best describes which provision prevails?
Police duty of care for positive acts during an arrest (Robinson v CC West Yorkshire)
Which of the following best describes whether the officers owed Edna a duty of care?
The omissions principle: when a duty to prevent harm arises
In which of the following situations is a duty of care to prevent the harm most likely to arise?
Objective standard of care for a defendant with mental illness (Dunnage v Randall)
Which of the following best states whether Gareth is in breach of duty?
Professional standard and disclosure of material risks (Montgomery v Lanarkshire Health Board)
Which of the following best describes whether Mr Haddad breached his duty of care in failing to tell Ines about the risk?
Mesothelioma and multiple employers: joint and several liability (Compensation Act 2006 s.3)
Which of the following best describes Brennan Ltd's liability to Terence?
Pure economic loss caused by a negligent act: power cut damages calculation (Spartan Steel)
Applying the leading authority on economic loss caused by a negligent act, how much is Forgewell likely to recover from the contractors?
Negligent misstatement by a solicitor to the opposite party (Steel v NRAM)
Which of the following best describes whether Hollins LLP owed Northgate a duty of care in respect of the email?
Disclaimer of liability for negligent advice to a non-client business (UCTA 1977 ss.2(2), 11(3), 13)
Which of the following best describes the effect of the notice on any claim by Kestrel against Vantage in negligence?
Rescuers and primary victim status in psychiatric injury claims
Which of the following best describes Amara's likely position?
Remoteness: foreseeability of the type of harm, not the precise manner (Jolley v Sutton LBC)
Which of the following best describes whether Tobias's injury is too remote?
What the estate can recover (Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 s.1)
Which of the following heads of loss is NOT recoverable in the estate's claim?
Who may claim bereavement damages under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 s.1A
Who is entitled to bereavement damages under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?
Effect of contributory negligence on damages (Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945 s.1)
Which of the following best describes the effect of Faisal's fault on his claim?
Volenti and passengers in motor vehicles (Road Traffic Act 1988 s.149)
Which of the following best describes the insurers' argument?
Illegality: losses flowing from the claimant's own crime (Henderson v Dorset Healthcare)
Which of these heads of loss is Rosalind likely to be able to recover?
Defective work equipment due to a third party (Employer's Liability (Defective Equipment) Act 1969)
Which of the following best describes Oakridge's liability to Darius?
Vicarious liability stage one: independent contractors (Barclays Bank v Various Claimants)
Which of the following best describes whether the company is vicariously liable?
Vicarious liability stage two: close connection and an assault on a customer (Mohamud v WM Morrison)
Which of the following best describes whether Fuelstop Ltd is vicariously liable for the assault?
Occupier's liability for a contractor's faulty work (Occupiers' Liability Act 1957 s.2(4)(b))
Which of the following best describes Elmhurst's likely liability to Priya under the Occupiers' Liability Act 1957?
Obvious risks and freely chosen dangerous activities (Tomlinson v Congleton BC)
Which of the following best describes the council's likely liability to Ollie?
Excluding liability for personal injury to a consumer visitor (Consumer Rights Act 2015 s.65)
Which of the following best describes the effect of the notice on Hannah's claim for her injury?
Who is liable for a defective product under the Consumer Protection Act 1987 s.2
Which of the following best describes who is liable to Zara under Part I of the Act?
Who can sue in private nuisance: an interest in land is required (Hunter, confirmed in Fearn v Tate)
Which of the following best describes who can sue in private nuisance?
Defences in private nuisance: coming to the nuisance and planning permission (Coventry v Lawrence)
Which of the following best describes Thornfield's arguments?
Rylands v Fletcher: strict liability for property damage but not personal injury
Which of the following best describes Mr Lindqvist's claim under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher?
Certainty of subject matter: unallocated generic goods (Re Goldcorp)
Which of the following best describes the customers' position in respect of the remaining coins?
Certainty of objects for a discretionary trust: the 'is or is not' test
Which of the following best describes the validity of the trust?
Oral declaration of trust of land: LPA 1925 s.53(1)(b)
Can Beatrix enforce the trust against Owen?
Oral direction to trustees to hold for another: s.53(1)(c) LPA 1925
Who is beneficially entitled to the shares?
Imperfect gift of shares not saved as a declaration of trust (Milroy v Lord)
Which of the following best describes Felix's position?
The rule in Re Rose: donor has done everything in their power
Who is entitled in equity to the shares?
Imperfect gift perfected by appointment as executor (Strong v Bird)
Who is entitled to the piano?
Gift to a trust where the donor is one of several trustees (Choithram v Pagarani)
Which of the following best describes the status of the portfolio?
Charitable purposes: identifying a valid charitable trust (Charities Act 2011)
Which proposed gift is most likely to be a valid charitable trust?
Automatic resulting trust where express trusts do not exhaust the beneficial interest
Who is beneficially entitled to the £200,000 capital?
Presumed resulting trust: purchase money provided by another
Which of the following best describes the beneficial ownership of the flat?
Family home in joint names: the starting point (Stack v Dowden; Jones v Kernott)
What is the starting point for deciding how the beneficial interest in the house is shared?
Quantifying shares after a change of intention: the 'fair share' rule (Jones v Kernott)
How should the court decide the parties' beneficial shares?
Family home in one party's sole name: is there any beneficial interest at all?
Which of the following best describes how the court will approach Amara's claim?
Requirements of proprietary estoppel: assurance, reliance and detriment
Which of the following best describes Owain's position?
Who can be a trustee: appointment of a minor is void (LPA 1925 s.20)
Which of the following best describes the position?
Trustees' duties when investing: standard investment criteria and proper advice (TA 2000)
Which of the following best describes the trustees' duties?
Statutory maintenance: contingent beneficiary entitled to income at 18 (TA 1925 s.31)
What is the trustees' position regarding the income of the trust fund from now on?
Self-dealing rule: trustee buying trust property
Which of the following best describes the validity of the sale?
Secret commission received by a trustee is held on trust (FHR European Ventures v Cedar)
Which of the following best describes the beneficiaries' rights in respect of the commission?
Relief from liability for breach of trust: Trustee Act 1925 s.61
On what basis may the court relieve Agnes from personal liability?
Limitation for breach of trust: future interests and s.21(3) Limitation Act 1980
Is Quentin's claim time-barred?
Tracing into a mixed bank account: the lowest intermediate balance rule
What is the maximum amount the beneficiaries can claim from the account by tracing?
Dishonest assistance: the trustee's honesty is irrelevant (Royal Brunei Airlines v Tan)
Which of the following best describes Darius's liability?
Knowing receipt: no liability for a bona fide purchaser who later learns of the breach
Is Imogen liable in knowing receipt?
Acknowledging an earlier signature to two witnesses present together (Wills Act 1837 s.9)
Which of the following best describes whether the will was validly executed?
Testamentary capacity: Banks v Goodfellow, not the Mental Capacity Act 2005, as the test applied
Which of the following best describes the test the court will apply?
Unattested alteration to a will made after execution (Wills Act 1837 s.21)
Which of the following best describes Callum's entitlement?
Revocation by destruction must be by the testator or in their presence (Wills Act 1837 s.20)
Which of the following best describes the status of Rukhsana's will?
Effect of divorce on gifts to, and appointment of, a former spouse (Wills Act 1837 s.18A)
Which of the following best describes the effect of the divorce on Kwame's will?
Ademption of a specific gift of shares sold before death
Which of the following best describes Inés's entitlement?
Order of application of assets to debts and abatement of pecuniary legacies (AEA 1925 Sch.1 Pt II)
Which of the following best describes how the estate will be distributed?
Lapse of a share of residue given to named beneficiaries in equal shares
Which of the following best describes who is entitled to Thomas's residuary estate?
Calculating children's shares on intestacy with a surviving spouse (statutory legacy £322,000)
How much will each child be entitled to under the intestacy rules?
Intestacy with no spouse, issue or parent: whole-blood sibling's issue before half-blood sibling
Which of the following best describes who is entitled to Gethin's estate?
Time limit for an Inheritance Act 1975 claim: six months from the grant
Which of the following best describes the time limit position for Felicity's claim?
Cohabitant of less than two years: claiming under the 1975 Act as a person being maintained
Which of the following best describes Lorraine's position?
Priority for a grant where the sole executor predeceased (NCPR 1987 r.20)
Which of the following best describes who has priority to take a grant and what type of grant will issue?
Minority interest on intestacy: two administrators required (Senior Courts Act 1981 s.114(2))
Which of the following best describes the position on the grant?
Executor who may wish to act later: power reserved rather than renunciation (NCPR 1987 rr.27 and 37)
Which of the following is the most appropriate course?
Protecting personal representatives against unknown claims: s.27 Trustee Act 1925 notices
Which of the following best describes the step they can take to protect themselves before distributing?
Property passing outside the will: joint tenancy survivorship and tenancy in common
Which of the following best describes what passes to Ama under Kofi's will?
Inheritance tax on death: nil-rate band, residence nil-rate band and charity exemption
How much inheritance tax is payable on Seamus's death estate?
Failed potentially exempt transfer: tax with taper relief (IHTA 1984 s.7(4))
How much inheritance tax is payable on the gift to Femi as a result of Babatunde's death?
Business property relief unavailable for shares in an investment (property letting) company
Which of the following best describes the availability of business property relief (BPR) on the shares?
Occupiers' liability to skilled visitors and risks incident to their calling
Which of the following best describes Dana's likely liability to Kofi under the Occupiers' Liability Act 1957?
Counter-offers and the rejection of an original offer
Which of the following best describes the legal position?
Time limit for serving a claim form within the jurisdiction (CPR 7.5)
Which of the following correctly states the latest point by which the claimant must act to serve the claim form in time?
Removing a company director: ordinary resolution and special notice
Which of the following best describes how Tom can be removed as a director?
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