THE DAILY PRACTICE
SQE1 Criminal Law practice questions
One question. One rule to remember. Browse the published practice.
Criminal liability is assessed in FLK2. It covers the general principles (the conduct and mental elements of an offence, causation, parties and inchoate offences), specific offences such as non-fatal offences against the person, homicide, theft, fraud and criminal damage, and defences. Key statutes include the Offences Against the Person Act 1861, the Theft Act 1968, the Criminal Damage Act 1971 and the Fraud Act 2006. Every question below links to the source behind its answer.
Rules to remember
An accessory to murder must intend to assist or encourage the principal to act with intent to kill or cause GBH (possibly conditionally); foresight is evidence of that intent, not a substitute for it. Question L076
A person may be guilty of attempt even where the full offence is impossible; his intent is judged on the facts as he believed them to be (s.1(2), (3) CAA 1981). Question L075
Voluntary intoxication may be considered only on whether D formed a specific intent (e.g. s.18); it is no defence to basic intent offences such as s.20 or s.47. Question L074
In a householder case, grossly disproportionate force is never reasonable; force short of that must still be reasonable in the circumstances as D believed them to be. Question L073
Aggravated criminal damage (and arson) under s.1(2) can be committed against one's own property where D intends or is reckless as to endangering another's life by the damage; no actual harm is needed. Question L072
A defendant has a lawful excuse under s.5(2)(a) CDA 1971 if he honestly believed the owner had consented or would have consented; the belief need not be reasonable. Question L071
Fraud by false representation is complete when D dishonestly makes a false representation intending gain or loss; no one need be deceived and no gain or loss need result. Question L070
An everyday tool is a 'weapon of offence' for aggravated burglary only if D intends it for causing injury or incapacitating; capability to injure is not enough. Question L069
Entering part of a building beyond the scope of one's permission, with intent to steal, is burglary under s.9(1)(a); nothing need be taken. Question L068
Robbery requires force (or putting/seeking to put in fear of force) immediately before or at the time of stealing and in order to steal; force used for another reason does not count. Question L067
A borrowing amounts to intention permanently to deprive under s.6(1) only if it is for a period and in circumstances making it equivalent to an outright taking or disposal. Question L066
Property got by another's mistake, which the recipient is obliged to restore, is treated as belonging to the person entitled to restoration, and an intention not to restore counts as intention permanently to deprive. Question L065
For gross negligence manslaughter, a reasonably prudent person must have been able to foresee a serious and obvious risk of death, not just serious injury, from the breach of duty. Question L064
Unlawful act manslaughter requires a criminal act that all sober and reasonable people would realise carried a risk of some harm, which causes death; the test of danger is objective. Question L063
Diminished responsibility requires an abnormality of mental functioning from a recognised medical condition that substantially impairs a s.2(1A) ability and explains the killing; the defence must prove it, and it reduces murder to manslaughter. Question L062
Loss of control need not be sudden, but the defence is excluded where D acted in a considered desire for revenge (s.54(4) CJA 2009). Question L061
The year and a day rule is abolished; where the fatal injury was sustained more than three years before death, proceedings for murder or manslaughter need the Attorney General's consent. Question L060
The mens rea of murder is an intention to kill or to cause grievous bodily harm; the intended harm need not be life-threatening. Question L059
Under s.71 Domestic Abuse Act 2021, consent to actual bodily harm, wounding or GBH inflicted for sexual gratification is no defence to ss.18, 20 or 47 OAPA 1861 (save the STI exception). Question L058
Section 18 is committed by maliciously wounding or causing GBH with intent either to do GBH or to resist or prevent lawful apprehension; the two intents are alternatives. Question L057
For s.20, the defendant must have intended or actually foreseen that some physical harm to some person, albeit minor, might result; foresight of serious harm is not required. Question L056
Section 47 requires only the mens rea for the assault or battery; the prosecution need not prove intention or recklessness as to the actual bodily harm caused. Question L055
Where D intends to kill or seriously injure V1 but accidentally kills V2, his intent is transferred and he is guilty of murdering V2. Question L054
Recklessness in criminal damage is subjective: the defendant must be aware of a risk that the result will occur, and it must be unreasonable, in the circumstances known to her, to take it. Question L053
A person who creates a dangerous situation, becomes aware of it and fails to take reasonable steps to counteract it can be liable for the consequences, provided he has the mens rea at that point. Question L052
Dishonesty is judged by the standards of ordinary decent people, applied to the defendant's actual knowledge or belief as to the facts (Ivey; Barton). Question 13
Where the defendant may not have desired the result, the jury may find intention only if sure the result was a virtual certainty (barring unforeseen intervention) and the defendant appreciated that (R v Woollin). Question 27
Burglary under s.9(1)(b) needs only a trespassory entry followed by theft (or attempted theft, or GBH or attempted GBH) inside; the ulterior intent at the point of entry is required only for s.9(1)(a). Question 41
Burglary where the intent to steal is formed after entry (Theft Act 1968 s.9(1)(b))
Which of the following best describes Marcus's liability for burglary?
Oblique intention and the virtual certainty direction (R v Woollin)
Which of the following is the correct direction the judge should have given on intention?
The test for dishonesty after Ivey v Genting and R v Barton
Which of the following best describes how the court will decide whether Leon acted dishonestly?
Liability for failing to act after creating a dangerous situation (R v Miller duty)
Which of the following best describes whether Tomasz can be criminally liable for the damage caused by the fire?
Subjective recklessness in criminal damage (R v G)
Which of the following best describes whether Priya was reckless as to the damage to the warehouse?
Transferred malice where the blow strikes an unintended victim
Which of the following best describes Ryan's liability for Leah's death?
Mens rea for assault occasioning actual bodily harm (s.47 OAPA 1861; R v Savage)
Which of the following best describes Hannah's liability under s.47?
Mens rea of 'maliciously' inflicting grievous bodily harm (s.20 OAPA 1861; R v Mowatt)
Which of the following best states the mens rea the prosecution must prove under s.20?
Wounding with intent to resist lawful arrest (s.18 OAPA 1861)
Which of the following best describes Jordan's liability under s.18?
Consent to actual bodily harm for sexual gratification (Domestic Abuse Act 2021, s.71)
Which of the following best describes whether Sam's consent prevents Elliot being guilty of the s.47 offence?
Murder: an intention to cause grievous bodily harm is sufficient mens rea
Which of the following best describes Kofi's liability?
Death over three years after the injury: Attorney General's consent (Year and a Day Rule Act 1996)
Which of the following best describes the position on bringing a murder prosecution against Bethany?
Loss of control: considered desire for revenge (Coroners and Justice Act 2009, s.54(4))
Which of the following best describes whether the partial defence of loss of control is available to Nadia?
Diminished responsibility: elements, burden and effect (Homicide Act 1957, s.2)
Which of the following best describes how the defence of diminished responsibility operates in Oliver's case?
Unlawful act manslaughter: the objective dangerousness test (R v Church)
Which of the following best describes Leon's liability for unlawful act manslaughter?
Gross negligence manslaughter: the risk must be of death, not serious injury (R v Rose)
Which of the following best describes whether the judge's direction was correct?
Theft of money received by mistake (Theft Act 1968, s.5(4))
Which of the following best describes whether the property 'belonged to another' for the purposes of theft?
Borrowing that is equivalent to an outright taking (Theft Act 1968, s.6(1))
Which of the following best describes whether Rhys intended permanently to deprive his housemate of the ticket?
Robbery: force must be used in order to steal (Theft Act 1968, s.8)
Which of the following best describes Dean's liability for robbery?
Burglary by entering part of a building as a trespasser (Theft Act 1968, s.9(1)(a))
Which of the following best describes Ethan's liability for burglary?
Aggravated burglary: when is an article a 'weapon of offence'? (Theft Act 1968, s.10)
Which of the following best describes Gemma's liability for aggravated burglary?
Fraud by false representation is complete without any deception or gain (Fraud Act 2006, s.2)
Which of the following best describes Kemal's liability?
Lawful excuse based on an honest belief in the owner's consent (Criminal Damage Act 1971, s.5)
Which of the following best describes whether Ben has a defence?
Aggravated arson of the defendant's own property (Criminal Damage Act 1971, s.1(2) and (3))
Which of the following best describes Victor's liability under s.1(2) and (3) of the Criminal Damage Act 1971?
Self-defence in a householder case: grossly disproportionate force (CJIA 2008, s.76(5A))
Which of the following best describes how the jury should approach the degree of force Rahul used?
Voluntary intoxication: specific and basic intent (DPP v Majewski)
Which of the following best describes the relevance of Tyrone's intoxication?
Attempt where the full offence is impossible (Criminal Attempts Act 1981, s.1(2) and (3))
Which of the following best describes Simon's liability for attempted theft?
Accessory liability after R v Jogee: foresight is evidence of intent, not a substitute for it
Which of the following correctly states what the prosecution must prove for Marcus to be guilty of murder?
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